I'm still extremely confused as to how this sort of situation could escalate to that point. If the fact that the house belongs to the suspect has been established, and the suspect is not expressing the intention to harm anyone or themselves, what is the justification for continued police presence?

The official version seems to almost claim that angry yelling somehow limits police officers' ability to move freely, and that their arrest of him was justified by way of them being falsely arrested. (As in, their ability to move freely being arrested falsely.)